Civils Prelims Paper- 1


1. Consider the following statements regarding 'PRAGATI'
1. It is Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation platform
2. It is aimed at addressing common man's grievances, programme implementation and project monitoring
3. It is an IT based redressal and monitoring system
4. The first such programme was launched on 25th March 2015

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. Consider the following:
1. 'Kayakalp' an initiative to encourage every public health facility to provided clean and hygienic facilities
2. 'AMRUT' adopts a project approach to ensure basic infrastructure services in urban areas
3. USTTAD scheme aims to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts/crafts of minorities
4. Aadishilp is a National Tribal Crafts Mela organized by Trified

Which of the above is/ are correct
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

3. Consider the following statements regarding "Operation Decisive Storm"
1. It is aimed at preventing the Houthi rebels from expanding their area of influence in Yeman
2. Gulf Cooperation Council, led by Saudi Arabia, launched air attacks against Houthi rebels positions in Yemen on March 25, 2015

3. This military action was launched with UN sanction
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Which of the following is/are not correct regarding Heritage City Development Scheme (HRIDAY)?
a) A scheme to preserve and rejuvenate the rich cultural heritage of the country
b) Rs. 500 crore would be provided in this scheme over the next two years
c) 22 heritage cities have been selected in the first phase under the scheme
d) NGOs, spiritual organizations and private sector would be involved in implementation of the scheme

5. Which of the following is/are correct regarding recently approved 19th Constitution Amendment of the Srilanka?
1. President can appoint members of the cabinet on his/her own choice.
2. The terms of the President and Parliament have been reduced to five years from six years
3. A two-term limit that a person can have as President is re-introduced
4. President will have the power to dissolve Parliament only after completion of four and half years

a) 1 only
b) 2 , 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Which of the following Indian organisation has been awarded both International Gandhi Peace Prize and Indira Gandhi Prize for the year 2014?
a) Indian Space Research Organisation
b) Bharath Dynamics Limited
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Bharath Heavy Electrical Limited.

7. Which of the following countries are known for coffee production and coffee export in the world?
1) Brazil
2) Columbia
3) Indonesia

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Ruhr of Germany, Chota nagpur of India and Western China have the following in common.
1) Mineral Resources
2) Forest Resources
3) Backwardness
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

9. In which of the following regions of India, Coral Reefs are found..
1) Lakshadweep
2) Gulf of Mannar
3) Andaman and Nicobar

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All the above

10. Which of the following port of India is being sought to be developed as an Entrepot?
a) Chennai
b) Tuticorin
c) Cochin
d) Navi Mumbai

11. Which of the following is the major problem faced by cement industry in India at present?
a) Surplus production capacity
b) Shortage of raw materials
c) Inability to meet demands of market
d) Obsolete technology

12. Sun rises on the east because?
1) Earth rotates around itself with N-S axis
2) Earth rotates from West to East
3) Earth rotates from East to West
4) Earth's rotational axis is oblique to the orbital plane

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

13. Arrangement of rocks on the ocean bottom floor in chronology with youngest at mid oceanic regions and oldest towards the coast indicates
a) Continental Drift
b) Continental Subsidence
c) Seafloor Spreading
d) Submarine Volcanism

14. Which of the following rivers function as International Boundary between India and Pakistan?
1) Indus
2) Jhelum
3) Ravi

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3

15. Threat to Tigers in India is on account of?
1) Poaching
2) Habitat destruction
3) Mining
4) Transport and Communication lines

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All the above

16. Fossil fuels are found only in Sedimentary rocks because?
a) Sedimentary rocks are formed in River Basins
b) Sedimentary rocks are formed due to exogenitic forces
c) Sedimentary rocks formation does not involve high temperature and pressure
d) All the above

17. Which of the following are true about Bangalore city?
1) It is the state capital city with best solid waste disposal system in India
2) It is the state capital city with lowest percentage of its population in living slums
3) It is the state capital city with best ranking on cleanliness front in India

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) All the above

18. Cyclonic storms do not develop in the equatorial seas and oceans because?
a) equatorial air masses are humid
b) coriolis force is not sufficient in equatorial regions
c) low pressure troughs are not formed
d) all the above

19. Himalayan region is a..
1) Zone of subduction
2) Zone of continent-continent collision
3) Zone of new crust formation
4) Zone of crustal destruction

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Which of the following river is regarded as the successor of ancient Saraswathi?
a) Indus
b) Ghaggar
c) Ghagra
d) None of the above

21. Consider the following
1) Black soils of India are of lava origin
2) Black soils are best suited for dry land agriculture
3) Black soils are best suited for cotton cultivation

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All the above

22. Match the following..
A) The Ghat
B) Palghat gap
C) Shenkottai pass
D) Bhor ghat
1) Mumbai-Bangalore
2) Mumbai-Kolkata
3) Cochin-Chennai
4) Trivandrum-Madhurai
a) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
b) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1
c) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
d) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

23. Find the correct pair (s)
1) Katanga-Copper
2) Ruhr-Coal
3) Kimberley-Diamonds
4) Krivoi Rog-Copper

a) 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) All the above

24. Consider the following statements?
1. Bijak is the composition of the teachings of Sant Kabir
2. The philosophy of Pushtimarg was propounded by Vallabhacharya
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2

25. Which one of the following is true about the Kailasanath temples?
1. Kailasanth temple at Kanchi was constructed by Narasimha varma II
2. Replica of Kailsanath temple at Pattadakal built by Vikramaditya II
3. Kailasanath cave temple at Yellora built by Rashtrakuta Krishna I

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3

26. Who were the gods worshipped in the pancharatra cult?
a) Krishna Vasudeva, Brahma, Siva, Vishnu, Surya
b) Surya, Brahma, Siva, Ganesha, Indra
c) Krishna Vasudeva, Samkarshana, Aniruddha, Pradyumna, Samba
d) Ganesha, Durga, Ayyappa, Siva, Mahasena

27. Which one of the following pairs does not denote the extremist Saiva sects?
a) Pratyabhijnas, Spanda shastras
b) Aghoras, Kalamukhas
c) Pratyabhijnas, Kapalikas
d) Pasupathas, Spanda Shastras

28. The life of the individual is divided into four ashramas in the Hindu religion. Find out the ancient book first mentioned the four ashramas?
a) Katha Upanishad
b) Satapatha Brahmana
c) Gruha Sutras
d) Jabala Upanishad

29. Idenitify the pair of Shodasha Maha Janapads which didnot form part of the Magadha Kingdom in the Pre Mauryan era?
a) Asmaka, Avanthi
b) Gandhara, Kambhoja
c) Anga, Vajji
d) Malla, Kosala

30. Consider the following statements about the BEICO?
1. It is a state owned enterprise
2. A company of public private partnership
3. A private sector company

Choose the correct answer from the folowing.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 1 and 3 correct

31. Match the following sessions of Indian National Congress with the names of the Presidents?
List 1

A. 1885 Bombay session
B. 1886 Calcutta session
C. 1887 Madras session
D. 1888 Allahabad session
List 2
1. W.C.Banerjee
2. Dadabhai Naoroji
3. George Yule
4. Badruddin Tyabji
a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

32. Consider the following three schools of Indian Architecture with reference to their originators and popularizers
1. Nagara- Guptas- Rajputs
2. Dravida- Pallavas- Cholas
3. Vesara- Badami Chalukyas- Rashtrakutas, Hoysalas

Identify the correct answer from the following..
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of the above

33. Consider the occasion of declaration of day of deliverance by Md Ali Jinnah on December 22, 1939?
a) to rejoice the resignation of INC members from central and provincial offices
b) to protest against the communal disturbances in the provinces
c) to oppose the involvement of India in the 2nd World War
d) None of the above

34. Who among the following were the first women to have been elected as the president of INC as well as the governor of a state?
a) Sucheta Kriplani
b) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
c) Sarojini Naidu
d) Rajkumari amrit kaur

35. Which one of the following pairs is in-correct regarding patrons of Ajanta Cave architecture?
a) Satavahanas, Guptas, Badami Chalukyas
b) Pallavas, Eastern Chalukyas, Cholas
c) Vakatakas, Rashtrakutas, Guptas
d) Satavahanas, Badami Chalukyas, Guptas

36. Consider the Constitution of the Constituent Assembly?
1. Total strength of Constituent Assembly is 399
2. 297 members elected by the provincial legislatures
3. 97 members nominated by the Princely States
4. 4 members nominated by the Chief Commissioner Provinces

Choose correct answer from the following..
a) 1 only incorrect
b) 1 and 2 only incorrect
c) 1, 2 and 3 only incorrect
d) All the four are incorrect

37. Who was the congress leader responsible for bringing back Gandhiji to India?
a) Feroz shah Mehta
b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
d) Abdulla

38. What was the intention of introduction of Ilbert Bill by Lord Ripon?
a) To end the racial discrimination against the Indian Judges
b) Imposition of restrictions on news papers published in Indian Languages
c) Imposition of restriction on the carry of arms by the Indians
d) Removal of duty on the imported cotton clothes

39. Identify the Bhakti saint who met Babur personally?
a) Guru Nanak
b) Guru Amar Das
c) Dadu Dayal
d) Guru Angad

40. Who was the author of the following statement about the acquisition of political power by the BEICO in India?
We went for trade, before we know we masters..
a) Lord Karjan
b) Sir Jhon Seeley
c) George V
d) Queen Victoria

41. With reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consider the following statements?
1. SCO is headquartered in Shanghai
2. SCO has five members

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Which one of the following Awards/Prizes is given by Israel?
a) Abel prize
b) Pulitzer prize
c) Genesis prize
d) Raman Magsaysay Award

43. Who among the following is not a badminton player?
a) K.Srikanth
b) Parupalli Kashyap
c) H.S.Prannoy
d) Rohan Bopanna

44. Which of the following Government initiatives were incorporated in Foreign Trade policy 2015-20
I. Make in India
II. Digital India Mission
III. Skill India programme
IV. Ease of Business

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) I and II
b) I and IV
c) I, III and IV
d) I, II, III and IV

45. India's rank in the world for fixed broadband penetration according to Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
a) 121
b) 123
c) 125
d) 126

46. The main objective of Suraksha Bandhan Drive
a) Universal social security system
b) To improve agriculture production
c) To improve industrial production
d) To promote agriculture exports

47. A Novel Green project to generate 120 MW power was launched on 31st march 2015 by
a) Gujarat Ambuja cement
b) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
c) Tata Steel
d) Reliance Power

48. Which of the following agencies release 'World Corruption Perception Index Report' annually
a) United Nations
b) Amnesty International
c) World Bank
d) Transparency International

49. Which component has more weightage in Wholesale Price Index
a) Primary articles
b) Fuel, power and light
c) Manufactured products
d) Fuel, Power, Light and Lubricants

50. Which is the least literate union territory in India according to 2011 census
a) Lakshadweep
b) Dadar and Nagar haveli
c) Daman and diu
d) chandigarh

51. Which one of the following measures of land reforms, has, by now, been almost fully implemented in India
a) Abolition of intermediaries
b) Tenancy reforms
c) Consolidation of holdings
d) Ceilings on landholdings

52. The basic aim of the Lead Bank scheme is that
a) All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits
b) liberalize the licensing policy for opening up of more branches in urban areas
c) To undertake planning and formulation of annual credit plans for intensive development of a particular district
d) To create a completion among the scheduled commercial banks

53. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List - I
I. Committee on corporate restructuring and industrial sickness
II. Central-State Relations
III. All-India Rural Credit Survey Committee
IV. All-India Rural Credit review Committee
List - II
A) Venkatappaiah
B) Sarkaria
C) Goswami
D) A.D.Gorwala
Codes:
a) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
b) I-B, II-C , III-A, IV-D
c) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
d) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

54. While providing financial assistance, International Monetary Fund (IMF) put conditions on
a) Labour reforms
b) Administrative reforms
c) Planning reforms
d) Structural Reforms

55. The currency that does not lose very much value instantly is termed as
a) Soft currency
b) Hard currency
c) weak currency
d) paper currency

56. Number of working days in drought-affected areas under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act has been increased by union government on June 15, 2015 from 100 days to
a) 140 days
b) 150 days
c) 160 days
d) 165 days

57. According to "world investment report-2015" India's rank in terms of attracting more FDI's in 2014
a) 9th
b) 10th
c) 11th
d) 12th

58. Which one of the following represents priority sector lending by commercial banks in India
a) Lending to heavy industries
b) lending to state governments to meet budget deficit
c) Lending to state governments in emergency situations like floods and droughts
d) Lending to agriculture, small-scale industries and the weaker sections of the population

59. The main source of revenue of the central government
a) Income Tax
b) Wealth tax
c) Corporation tax
d) Capital gains tax

60. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as ____
a) villi
b) peyer's patches
c) rugae
d) choroid plexus

61. Liver, the largest gland is associated with several functions. Which one of the following is false?
a) Stores glucose as glycogen
b) Manufactures bile, converts the amino groups to urea.
c) Makes all the cholesterol that human body needs.
d) Secrete hormone called gastric.

62. A doctor suggested to a couple not to have more than one child because of
a) Rh + male and Rh - female
b) Rh - male and Rh + female
c) Rh + male and Rh + female
d) Rh - male and Rh - female

63. Consider the following statements
A. During normal activity, a molecule of haemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2
B. During conditions of acidosis, haemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently.

Which of the above statements is/are true.
a) A only
b) B only
c) Both
d) Neither A nor B

64. Health issues appear to be associated with all of the following except
a) omega -3 fatty acids
b) partially hydrogenated fats
c) trans fattyacids
d) saturated fats

65. Acquired immunity
a) can be active or passively acquired
b) can be transferred from the mother to the infant in breast milk
c) can be transferred by the injection of gamma globulin
d) always requires contact with a pathogen

66. Which of the following are symptoms of Ebola?
I. Fever
II. Gum bleeding
III. Nose bleeding
IV. Red spots on the body
V. Blood in stool
VI. Vomit
Which of the following are correct?

a) I, II, III, IV and V
b) I, II, III, V and VI
c) I, III, IV, V and VI
d) I, II, III, IV, V, VI.

67. Which of the following are correct?
I. Nicotine occurs in tobacco plant
II. Morphine occurs in green buds of poppy plant.
III. Cocaine is used as a local anesthetic.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III

68. The green plants absorb only certain wavelengths of the visible spectrum of light for photosynthesis. Which of the following lights are most effective in this process?
I. Blue
II. Green
III. Red
IV. Yellow

Select the correct answer using the codes given below?
a) I and IV
b) II and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I and III

69. Which of the following matching of vitamin and their deficiency disease is incorrect?
a) Vitamin D - Rickets
b) Vitamin B1 - Beri Beri
c) Vitamin E - Faulty blood clotting
d) Vitamin A - Night Blindness

70. Consider the following statements about antigens?
I. They induce the formation of antibodies
II. They provide immunity
III. They are formed only within the body.

Which of the statements given below are correct?
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III

71. Consider the following statements?
I. Non-functioning of lacrimal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of vitamin A
II. Deficiency of vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.
III. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in muscles.
IV. Deficiency of vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++

Which of the statements is /are correct?
a) I and II
b) II, III and IV
c) I, III and IV
d) I, II, III and IV

72. What are the unique properties of all stem cells?
I. Stem cells are capable of dividing and renewing themselves for long periods.
II. They don't have any tissue specific structures that allow them to perform specialized functions.
III. All embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells can proliferate for a year or more in the laboratory without differentiating.

a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) All of the above.

73. Consider the following statements about saturated fats?
I. Their sources are products of plant origin.
II. They are liquid at room temperature
III. Saturated fat rises cholesterol levels

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
a) Only I
b) II and III
c) Only III
d) I and III?

74. Which of the following is/are true regarding enzymes?
I. Proteinaceous in nature
II. Enzymes are usually very specific as to what substrates they bind.
III. They cannot act on the substrate at any temperature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) I and II
b) I, II and IV
c) I, II and III
d) II and IV

75. Due to eutrophication
a) BOD increases
b) BOD decreases
c) algae are destroyed
d) water becomes less harmful

76. Which conclusion cannot be drawn concerning plastic pollution in an ecosystem?
a) Plastic bags often block the digestive tract of animals causing starvation and death
b) Plastic bags may suffocate animals if they caught around an animal's mouth and nose or beak.
c) Plastic bags are biodegradable and although they take longer to rot, they are ultimately not a long-term threat to the ecosystem.
d) Plastic bags, bottles and other plastic items are often responsible for blocking waterways and causing environmental and health problems.

77. Which of the following is not a food chain?
a) Grass ---> Cows --> Humans
b) Leaves -->Caterpillar --> Bird
c) Squirrel --> Nuts --> Hawk
d) Grass --> Antelope --> Tiger

78. Mutations caused by high levels of radiation may be passed on to future generations if
a) the levels of radiation are particularly high.
b) the mutations occurs on DNA in gametes or cells.
c) the mutations occurs in somatic cells d) the mutation is not beneficial.

79. Green belt around industries and roads help in
a) reducing noise pollution
b) reducing air pollution
c) reducing water pollution
d) all of these

80. Workers working in cotton mills suffer from ____
a) silicosis
b) black lung disease
c) siderosis
d) byssinosis

81. Which of the following is negative effect on the soil and water due to conventional, mechanized farming practices?
a) leaching of pesticides and fertilizers in to the ground water.
b) reduction in soil organic matter.
c) soil erosion
d) all of the above

82. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
a) Green house is a natural phenomenon.
b) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in fresh water bodies.
c) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas.
d) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.

83. Identify the correctly matched pair?
a) Basel convention - Biodiversity conversation
b) Montreal Protocol - Global warming
c) Bonn convention - Migratory birds
d) Ramsar convention - Ground water pollution

84. Trichoderma has proved as a useful microorganism for
a) reclamation of wastelands
b) bioremediation of contaminated soils
c) biological control of soil borne plant pathogens.
d) gene transfer in higher plants.

85. Weather patterns are largely determined in ____
a) stratosphere
b) mesosphere
c) troposphere
d) lithosphere

86. The microorganism that is mainly used as an indicator of fecal pollution in water is ____
a) Escherichia coli
b) Clostridium tetani
c) Clostridium botulinum
d) Cyano bacteria

87. Soil microorganisms that are also potential pathogens for humans and other animals are most likely to be members of the genus
a) Thiobacillus
b) Rhizobium
c) Clostridium
d) Azotobacter

88. Progenesis that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is
a) the tragedy of commons
b) sustainable development
c) Net Primary Productivity(NPP)
d) the impossibility theorem

89. Which country successfully tested the Wu-14, a hypersonic nuclear delivery vehicle?
a) Russia
b) Japan
c) China
d) Italy

90. Match the following..
A) Pyrolusite 1) Lead
B) Rutile 2) Mercury
C) Cinnabar 3) Titanium
D) Galena 4) Manganese
a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
b) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

91. The National Judicial Appointments Commission is unconstitutional for the following reasons..
1. The potential for its misuse as appointments to the higher judiciary will be controlled by the executive branch of the government
2. It suffers from the vice of arbitrariness as there is no way to determine who an 'eminent person'
3. The veto power given to any two members also make it susceptible to misuse.
4. There are concerns about maintaining the independence of the judiciary as the Supreme Court and the High Courts examine the validity of actions taken by the executive and legislative branches
Which of the statements given the above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 4

92. Real GNP per capita in a nation is affected by
I. The quantity and quality of resources under the nations command
II. how efficiently the nation uses its res-ources in producing goods and services
III. the size of the dependent population

Which of the following is correct?
a) III only
b) I and II only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III

93. The Goods and Service Tax (GST) bill is critiqued on the following grounds..
1. The benefit will go to large- scale producers while the small scale ones will be at greater disadvantage
2. With resort to revenue reachability, prices and cost will not decline
3. The adoption of a fixed revenue neutral rate for all stages of production and distribution will lead to a rise in the prices of basic and intermediate goods and services and thereby making it inflationary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3

94. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has given ruling, laying down the 'rarest of the rare' principle in handling out the death penalty?
a) Shatrughan Chauhan vs. Union of India
b) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
c) ADM Jabalpur vs. Shivakant Shukla
d) Ajayakumar vs. State of Bihar

95. Consider the following statements:
1. The President may at any time by order-direct that the whole or any specified part of a scheduled area shall cease to be a scheduled area or a part of such an area
2. The President may at any time by order-increased the area of any scheduled area in a state after consultation with the Governor of the state
Which of the statements give above is/are correct.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 or nor 2

96. It shall be the duty of Prime Minister..
1. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation
2. To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and the proposals for legislation as the President may call for
3. If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter an which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council
Which of the statement given above is is/are correct

a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3

97. 1. The executive power of the state shall be vested in the governor under article 154
2. Nothing in the Article 154 shall prevent the Parliament or the legislature of the state from conferring by law functions on any authority subordinate to the governor
Which of the statement given above is/are correct

a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) neither 1 nor 2

98. Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 'Grama Sabha' means
1. A body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the area of panchyat at the village level
2. A body consisting of the adults in the village within the area of panchayat at the village level

Which of the statement(s) given above is is/are correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Both of them

99. The 14th Finance Commission recommended that..
1. the distinction between plan expenditure and non plan expenditure should be done away with
2. The share of tax devolution should be increased to 42 percent of the divisible pool
3. A weightage of 7.5 percent to the forest cover to assess the cost disabilities should be given to the states
4. Keeping in view of the demographic changes a weightage of 10 percent to the 2011 population is to be given to the states

Which of the above recommendations are correct..
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4

100. The reasons for the ineffectiveness of the citizen's charter are..
1. lack of publicity
2. assured quality of services
3. access to the information
4. complicated procedures for the redressal

Which of the above are correct?
a) 1, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3

key

1) d

2) d

3) c

4) c

5) b

6) a

7) b

8) a

9) d

10) b

11) a

12) b

13) c

14) d

15) d

16) c

17) d

18) b

19) c

20) b

21) d

22) d

23) d

24) c

25) d

26) c

27) a

28) d

29) b

30) c

31) a

32) c

33) a

34) c

35) b

36) c

37) c

38) a

39) a

40) b

41) d

42) c

43) d

44) d

45) c

46) a

47) b

48) d

49) c

50) b

51) a

52) c

53) c

54) d

55) b

56) b

57) a

58) d

59) c

60) b

61) d

62) a

63) d

64) a

65) d

66) d

67) d

68) d

69) c

70) a

71) d

72) b

73) c

74) c

75) a

76) c

77) c

78) b

79) d

80) d

81) d

82) d

83) c

84) c

85) c

86) a

87) c

88) b

89) c

90) a

91) a

92) b

93) d

94) b

95) c

96) c

97) a

98) a

99) d

100) a

Published on 8/13/2015 5:17:00 PM
Tags:
Civils Prelims Paper- 1

Related Topics